Updated PDF (New 2023) Actual Palo Alto Networks PCCET Exam Questions [Q37-Q61]

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Updated PDF (New 2023) Actual Palo Alto Networks PCCET Exam Questions

Verified PCCET Exam Dumps PDF [2023] Access using Prep4pass


The PCCET certification exam covers a broad range of cybersecurity topics such as cybersecurity fundamentals, network security, endpoint protection, cloud security, and cybersecurity operations. PCCET exam is ideal for individuals who have little or no experience in cybersecurity but are interested in pursuing a career in this field. It is also a great way for IT professionals who want to transition into cybersecurity roles to get started.


The PCCET certification exam is offered by Palo Alto Networks, a leading provider of cybersecurity solutions. Palo Alto Networks is known for its innovative and cutting-edge cybersecurity products and services, and the PCCET certification exam is no exception. PCCET exam is designed to test an individual's ability to use Palo Alto Networks products and solutions effectively and efficiently.


The PCCET certification exam is offered by Palo Alto Networks, a leading provider of cybersecurity solutions. Palo Alto Networks is a trusted name in the cybersecurity industry, and its certification programs are highly valued by employers worldwide. The PCCET certification is a stepping stone to other advanced cybersecurity certifications offered by Palo Alto Networks, such as the PCNSA (Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator) and PCNSE (Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Engineer).

 

NEW QUESTION # 37
Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

  • A. IaaS
  • B. SaaS
  • C. DaaS
  • D. PaaS

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

  • A. Session, Transport, Network
  • B. Data Link, Session, Transport
  • C. Application, Presentation, and Session
  • D. Physical, Data Link, Network

Answer: C

Explanation:
Application (Layer 4 or L4): This layer loosely corresponds to Layers 5 through 7 of the OSI model.
Transport (Layer 3 or L3): This layer corresponds to Layer 4 of the OSI model.
Internet (Layer 2 or L2): This layer corresponds to Layer 3 of the OSI model.
Network Access (Layer 1 or L1): This layer corresponds to Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

  • A. Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.
  • B. Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code
  • C. Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand
  • D. Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 40
Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

  • A. Content Identification
  • B. Web Application Zone
  • C. Segmentation Platform
  • D. VPN Concentrator

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 41
The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?

  • A. infrastructure
  • B. platform
  • C. data
  • D. physical

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

  • A. Pre-exploit protection
  • B. Static
  • C. Dynamic
  • D. Bare-metal

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 43
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses
Subnet 2: 25 host addresses
Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

  • A. 192.168.6.168/30
  • B. 192.168.6.0/25
  • C. 192.168.6.160/29
  • D. 192.168.6.128/27

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 44
What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

  • A. Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor
  • B. Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS
  • C. Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not
  • D. Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 45
Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

  • A. Terminal shell types on endpoints
  • B. Services
  • C. Users
  • D. /etc/shadow files

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Explanation
A directory service is a database that contains information about users, resources, and services in a network.


NEW QUESTION # 46
Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

  • A. Playbooks
  • B. Case management
  • C. Integrations
  • D. Ticketing system

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 47
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 48
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

  • A. control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
  • B. control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol
  • C. control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing
  • D. control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

Answer: D

Explanation:
page 211 "Consolidating servers within trust levels: Organizations often consolidate servers within the same trust level into a single virtual computing environment: ... ... ... This virtual systems capability enables a single physical device to be used to simultaneously meet the unique requirements of multiple VMs or groups of VMs. Control and protection of inter-host traffic with physical network security appliances that are properly positioned and configured is the primary security focus."


NEW QUESTION # 49
What does "forensics" refer to in a Security Operations process?

  • A. Analyzing new IDS/IPS platforms for an enterprise
  • B. Reviewing information about a broad range of activities
  • C. Validating cyber analysts' backgrounds before hiring
  • D. Collecting raw data needed to complete the detailed analysis of an investigation

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 50
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

  • A. Management
  • B. Security
  • C. Cloud
  • D. Network

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A SASE solution converges networking and security services into one unified, cloud-delivered solution (see Figure 3-12) that includes the following:
Networking
Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)
Virtual private networks (VPNs)
Zero Trust network access (ZTNA)
Quality of Service (QoS)
Security
Firewall as a service (FWaaS)
Domain Name System (DNS) security
Threat prevention
Secure web gateway (SWG)
Data loss prevention (DLP)
Cloud access security broker (CASB)


NEW QUESTION # 51
Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation
The basic DNS record types are as follows:
A (IPv4) or AAAA (IPv6) (Address): Maps a domain or subdomain to an IP address or multiple IP addresses CNAME (Canonical Name): Maps a domain or subdomain to another hostname MX (Mail Exchanger): Specifies the hostname or hostnames of email servers for a domain PTR (Pointer): Points to a CNAME; commonly used for reverse DNS lookups that map an IP address to a host in a domain or subdomain SOA (Start of Authority): Specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone such as primary name server, email address of the domain administrator, and domain serial number NS (Name Server): The NS record specifies aan authoritative name server for a given host.
TXT (Text): Stores text-based information


NEW QUESTION # 52
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

  • A. defines any network service
  • B. requires the use of only one cloud service provider
  • C. enables on-demand network services
  • D. requires the use of two or more cloud service providers

Answer: C

Explanation:
Cloud computing is not a location but rather a pool of resources that can be rapidly provisioned in an automated, on-demand manner.


NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

  • A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • B. Internet Protocol (IP)
  • C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
  • D. Domain Name Service (DNS)

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 54
In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

  • A. Cortex XDR
  • B. Cortex XSOAR
  • C. AutoFocus
  • D. MineMild

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
In addition to local analysis, Cortex XDR can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect.


NEW QUESTION # 55
Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

  • A. SecDevOps
  • B. SecOps
  • C. DevOps
  • D. NetOps

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Security operations (SecOps) is a necessary function for protecting the digital way of life, for global businesses and customers. SecOps requires continuous improvement in operations to handle fast-evolving threats. SecOps needs to arm security operations professionals with high-fidelity intelligence, contextual data, and automated prevention workflows to quickly identify and respond to these threats. SecOps must leverage automation to reduce strain on analysts and execute the Security Operation Center's (SOC) mission to identify, investigate, and mitigate threats.


NEW QUESTION # 56
Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 57
You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.
What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)

  • A. PA-Series
  • B. VM-Series
  • C. CN-Series
  • D. Panorama

Answer: A,B


NEW QUESTION # 58
Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

  • A. MAC
  • B. SNMP
  • C. UDP
  • D. NFS

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

  • A. Identity and Access Management (IAM)
  • B. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
  • C. User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
  • D. User-ID

Answer: A

Explanation:
Identity and access management (IAM) is a software service or framework that allows organizations to define user or group identities within software environments, then associate permissions with them. The identities and permissions are usually spelled out in a text file, which is referred to as an IAM policy.


NEW QUESTION # 60
Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

  • A. Sanctioned
  • B. Secure
  • C. Tolerated
  • D. Benign

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 61
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